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The **Pancastikaya** refutes the doubt that there is no omniscient being, stating that if you say that there is no omniscient being in this time, then there is no omniscient being in the three realms and three times. If you say that there is no omniscient being in this assembly or in this place, then we accept it. But how do you know that there is no omniscient being in the three realms and three times? If you have known the omniscient being without knowing the three realms and three times, then you yourself are omniscient, because the omniscient being is one who knows all three realms. If you are not omniscient and you do not know the three realms and three times, then how can you deny that there is no omniscient being in the three realms and three times?
An analogy is given: Just as someone who has not seen a pot on the earth with their own eyes says that there is no pot on this earth, their statement is correct. But can a blind person say that there is no pot here without seeing it? No, they cannot. Similarly, only someone who has seen the three realms and three times and directly knows that there is no omniscient being can deny the existence of an omniscient being. Another person who does not know everything cannot deny it like a blind person. But someone who knows the three realms and three times cannot deny the omniscient being in any way, because they themselves become omniscient - they have knowledge of the three realms and three times.
You have argued that there is no attainment of omniscience, but that is not correct. The question is whether you have not attained omniscience or whether the people in the three realms and three times have not attained omniscience. If you have not attained omniscience, then it does not mean that there is no omniscience, because you do not even know about subtle substances like atoms, or the thoughts of others. It cannot be assumed that because you do not know, these things do not exist. If you say that the people in the three realms and three times have not attained omniscience, then how did you know this? We have already considered this. This flaw is in your argument. And the analogy you gave, "like the horns of a donkey," is also not correct, because donkeys do not have horns, but it does not mean that there are no horns anywhere. Horns are clearly seen in cows and other animals. Similarly, the omniscient being is not here in this country, but it does not mean that it does not exist anywhere. In this way, it should be understood that there are flaws in your argument and analogy.
Then the doubter says that you have pointed out the flaws in the absence of an omniscient being, but tell us what evidence is there for the existence of an omniscient being? Here is the evidence: There is an omniscient being, because as stated earlier, there is no evidence to contradict it, just as there is no evidence to contradict the existence of pleasure and pain that we experience. Or, another inferential evidence is that subtle substances, objects that are obstructed or covered by others, objects that are far away, and objects that are in the past or future, are all known by the omniscient being.